60 Solved Medicine and Medical Nursing February 2017 MCQ Trial Questions [4]

1. When emphysema is present, there is a decrease oxygen supply because of

A. Infectious obstructions

B. Loss of aerating surface

C. Pleural effusion

D. Respiratory muscle paralysis 


2. To help a patient obtain maximum benefits after postural drainage the nurse should

A. Administer the oxygen prn

B. Encourage the patient to cough deeply

C. Encourage the patient to rest for 30 minutes

D. Place the patient in a sitting position


3. One cause of spontaneous pneumothorax in a patient with emphysema is a

A. Pleval friction rub

B. Puncture wound of the chest wall

C. Rupture of subpleura bleb

D. Tracheooesophageal fistula


4. A patient’s laboratory report shows acid-fast rods in his sputum. These rods are presumed to be

A. Bordetella pertussis

B. Diphtheria bacillus

C. Influenza virus

D. Mycobacterium tuberculosis


5. When assessing a patient with a suspected atelectasis the nurse would expect

A. A dry unproductive cough

B. A normal oral temperature

C. Diminished breath sounds

D. Slow deep respiration


6. An ambu-bag is used in the intensive care unit when

A. A respiratory arrest occurs

B. A surgical incision with copious drainage is present

C. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation

D. The respiratory output must be monitored


7. Tidal volume can be explained as the amount of air

A. Exhaled forcibly after a normal expiration

B. Exhaled normally after a normal inspiration

C. Forcibly inspired over and above normal inspiration

D. Trapped in the alveoli that cannot be extended


8. An example of primary prevention activities by the nurse would be

A. Assisting in immunization programme

B. Correction of dietary deficiencies

C. Establishing goals for rehabilitation

D. Prevention of disabilities


9. When caring for a patient who is HIV positive the nurse should explain to the patient how to prevent


B. Kaposis sarcoma

C. Other infections

D. Social isolation


10. When educating the family of a patient with AIDS who has been discharged the nurse should tell the family

A. “let the patient eat from paper plates and discard them”

B. “soak the plates in hot water overnight before washing”

C. “you need to boil the plates for 30 minutes after use”

D. “ wash the plates in hot soapy water as you usually do” 


11. A patient who is exposed to hepatitis A is given gamma globulin to provide passive immunity which

A. Accelerates antigen-antibody union at the hepatic site

B. Increases the production of short – lived antibodies

C. Provides antibodies that neutralize the antigen

D. Stimulates the lymphatic system to produce antibodies


12. The benefit in using tetanus antitoxin is that it

A. Provides a high titre of antibodies

B. Provides immediate active immunity

C. Stimulates long-lasting passive immunity

D. Stimulates plasma cells directly


13. Without any pathological lesions a patient’s respiratory centre is stimulated by

A. Calcium

B. Carbon dioxide

C. Lactic acid

D. Oxygen


14. One of the commonest complications of chronic asthma is

A. Atelectasis

B. Emphysema

C. Pneumothorax

D. Pulmonary fibrosis


15. Before a tuberculosis patient is declared non-infective the nurse must ensure that

A. No acid-fast bacteria are in the sputum

B. The patient no longer has the disease

C. The patient’s temperature is normal

D. The tuberculin skin test is negative


16. People should be taught to avoid food products in bulged cans because they might contain

A. Clostridia tetani

B. Clostridia botulinum

C. Escherichia coli

D. Salmonella


17. The nurse should administer a nasogastric tube feeding slowly to reduce the hazard of

A. Abdominal distention

B. Flatulence

C. Indigestion

D. Regurgitation


18. A patient with duodenal ulcer would probably describe the associated pain as

A. A generalized abdominal pain intensified by moving

B. A gnawing sensation relieved by food

C. An ache radiating to the left side

D. An intermittent colicky abdominal pain


19. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes

A. Avoiding expired tin food

B. Observing food hygiene

C. Preventing constipation

D. Screening of blood donors


20. Before giving a patient digoxin the nurse should check

A. Apex heart rate

B. Difference between apex and radical pulse

C. radical pulse

D. Respiration rate


21. A patient receiving propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) should be told to expect

A. Acceleration of the heart rate after eating a heavy meal

B. Flushing sensations for a few minutes after taking the drugs

C. Dizziness with strenuous activity

D. Pounding of the heart for few minutes after taking the drug


22. When teaching about antacid therapy the nurse should include the fact that antacid tablets

A. Are as effective as the liquid from

B. Interfere with the absorption of other drugs

C. Must be taken one hour before meals

D. Should be taken only at 4-hourly intervals


23. A serious complication of malaria is

A. Anaemia and haemorrhge

B. Black water fever

C. Congested lung

D. Impaired peristalsis

24. A patient on Lasix and digoxin should be observed for symptoms of electrolytes depletion caused by

A. Continuous dypsnoea

B. Diuretic therapy

C. Inadequate oral intake

D. Sodium restriction


25. Clinical features of hypokalaemia include

A. Apathy, weakness, abdominal distention

B. Oedema, bounding pulse, confusion

C. Spasms, diarrhea, irregular pulse rate

D. Sunken eye balls, kussmau/ breathing thirst


26. To prevent pulmonary embolus in a patient on bed rest the nurse should

A. Encourage deep breathing and coughing exercise

B. Limit the patient’s fluid intake

C. Massage the legs twice daily

D. Teach the patient to move the legs when in bed


27. The coronary arteries

A. Carry high oxygen content blood to the lungs

B. Carry blood from the aorta to the myocardium

C. Carry reduced-oxygen-content blood to the lungs

D. Supply blood to the endocardium


28. The pain associated with coronary thrombosis is caused primarily by

A. Arterial spasm

B. Blocking of the coronary veins

C. Irritation of nerve endings in the cardiac plexus

D. Ischaemia of the heart muscles


29. A common complication of myocardial infarction is

A. Anaphylactic shock

B. Cardiac arrhythmia

C. Cardiac enlargement

D. Hypokalaemia


30. When a patient is receiving anticoagulant the nursing care should include observation for

A. Chest pain

B. Epistaxis

C. Headache

D. Nausea


31. A pacemaker is used in some patient to serve the function normally performed by

A. Accelerator nerves to the heart

B. A.V node

C. Bundle of his

D. SA node


32. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:

A. Elevating the legs when in bed.

B. Putting the patient in supine position

C. Serving a seasoned beef to him

D. Using bedside commode for stools


33. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The immediate nursing action is:

A. suction of the patient vigorously

B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position

C. give all the prescribed medications

D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance


34. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:

A. Protein pumps

B. capillary wall

C. ionic gates

D. fatty substances


35. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?

A. pancytopenia anaemia

B. haemorrhagicanaemia

C. Addison’s pernicious anemia

D. Aplastic anaemia


36. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:

A. blood vessels

B. interstitial space

C. spinal cord

D. cytoplasm


37. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?

A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses

B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses

C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses

D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thread pedal pulses


38. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numB. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:

A. Hodgkin’s disease

B. Parkinson’s disease

C. Raynauld’s disease

D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome


39. Vitamins are needed ………………. to sustain growth and health

A. periodically in smaller quantities

B. daily in smaller quantities

C. annually in greater quantities

D. periodically in greater quantities


40. Which of the following often causes hemorrhagic anemia?

A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss

B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-intestinal tract

C. endocrine changes in the body

D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet


41. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?

A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration

B. pericardial friction rub

C. anterior chest pain

D. weakness and irritability


42. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffering from Raynaud’s disease?

A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate

B. ingestion of an offal

C. ingestion of cereals and pulses

D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables


43. Potassium excess can result in:

A. tongue fissure

B. muscle cramps

C. sunken eyes

D. increased sweating


44. In hemorrhagic anemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.

A. pethidine

B. Coumadin

C. heparin

D. morphine


45. The byproducts of all foods oxidized in the body are;

A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol

B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide

C. glucose, amino acids and water

D. carbon dioxide, energy and water


46. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:

A. alteration in comfort (pain)

B. anxiety

C. ineffective coping

D. impaired tissue integrity


47. An agent of a disease is referred to:

A. the affected person

B. the causative organism

C. the method of spread of the disease

D. the environmental condition


48. The major function of sodium in the body is to:

A. promote wound healing

B. to form ATP

C. balance body fluid

D. process extracellular fluid


49. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:

A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar

B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt

C. 1000mls of wholesome water

D. a clean container and its cover


50. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:

A. chloride

B. calcium

C. magnesium

D. potassium


51. The purpose of health education is to

A. re-inforce the doctors instructions for the patient

B. meet the patient’s informational needs

C. facilitate a research to be conducted by nurses

D. create a rapport between the nurse and the patient.


52. In atherosclerosis, the deposition of fatty material occurs beneath ……

A. the outer lining of the blood vessels

B. the superficial venues and arterioles

C. the middle lining of the blood vessels

D. the inner lining of the blood vessels


53. Myocardial infarction is characterized by a prolonged

A. increased supply of blood and oxygen to the tissues

B. substernal oppression or pain

C. radiating pains from the heart to the inner aspects of the arms.

D. emotional change due to fear of death.


54. Squint occurs when ………….

A. there is an increased intraoccular pressure

B. there is a failure of the visual axes to meet at the point being observed

C. there is a displaced lens

D. the lenses are opaque


55. Squint is also referred to as …

A. strabismus

B. nystagmus

C. melbomian cyst

D. applanation prisms


56. Nephrotic syndrome represents a group of symptoms that occur with ….

A. signs of increased albumin in the blood

B. signs of dehydration

C. signs of heavy loss of protein

D. signs of decreased body hormones


57. In the management of a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse must know that ………

A. the blood has not been infected

B. the patient is susceptible to infection

C. the patient’s voice will become hoarse

D. the patient is helped with corticosteroid if it is associated with diabetes mellitus


58. In caring for a patient suffering from nephrotic syndrome, the nurse should understand that

A. He may be conscious of the disorder but finds it difficult in coping with restrictions of the course of treatment.

B. He needs anti-diuretic drugs to enhance recovery.

C. He needs to wear tight clothing to reduce the occurrence of oedema.

D. He keeps away from other patients at the warD.


59. Right ventricular failure (Right-sided-heart failure) is treated by the combination of

A. morphine and frusemide

B. rest, digitalis and diuretics

C. morphine, antibiotics and ant diuretics

D. morphine alone.


60. The primary action of the nurse in providing care for a patient diagnosed of severe heart failure is …..

A. to prescribe anti-hypertensive drugs

B. to restrict patient from performing an activity

C. talk to patient’s relative about the need to support patient to recover

D. to identify the cause and treat promptly with drugs.

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