40 Medical and Surgical Nursing MCQ Trial Questions [1]

1. In malignant hypertension the patient often die from …..

A. progressive release of catecholimine

B. progressive renal damage

C. progressive obstruction of vessels

D. progressive effects of intake of antibiotics

 

2. Left ventricular failure (left sided heart failure) is best treated with……

 A. intravenous injection of digitalis and antibiotics

B. intravenous injection of digitalis alone

C. intravenous injection of morphine, aminopylline and frusemide

D. intravenous injection of aminophylline and frusemide

 

3. The complications of obesity include the following except ……………

A. depression

B. osteoarthritis

C. decreased libido

D. atherosclerosis

4. In providing nursing care for a client diagnosed of diabetes mellitus, the patient said

 he enjoys eating pastries. The nurse’s response should be ….

A. “take pastries in moderation”

B. “you should eat pastries freely”

C. “you must avoid eating pastries”

D. “consult your counselor before your take pastries” …….

5. Peptic ulcer may be classified according to the following organs except ………

A. duodenal

B. gastric

C. oesophageal

D. ileal

 

6. The basic factors that may cause peptic ulcer do NOT include one of the following: …..

A. excessive secretion of gastric acid

B. inadequate protection of the lining of stomach and duodenum against digestion by a base and pepsin

C. helicobacter pylori infection

D. drug eg. NSAID’S

 

 7. In duodenal ulcer, the pain may wake the patient up in the ……

A. middle of the night

B. early morning

C. late in the night

D. late in the afternoon

 

8. Which of the following agents is described as H2 – Receptor antagonist?

A. omeprazole

B. sulphathalarole

C. ranitidine

D. amoxicillin

 

9. Which of the following agents is described as proton pump inhibitor (PPI)?

A. omeprazole

B. sulphathalazole

C. ranitidine

D. amoxicillin

 

10. The majority of duodenal and gastric ulcers not associated with NSAID’s are caused by the following except.................

 A. H2 – receptor antagonist

B. H. pylori

C. H. influenzae

D. Proton pump inhibitor

 

11. Non –pharmacological treatment of peptic ulcer include the following except ………

 A. Cessation of smoking

B. Avoid foods that aggravate the pain

C. Relief of anxiety and stress

D. Promote healing of the ulcer

12. Which of the following does NOT cause gastro esophageal reflux disease (GERD)?

 A. NSAID’s

B. hiatus hernia

C. pregnancy

D. obesity

13. An enlarged, displaced anal vascular cushions are described as ………

A. anal thrombosis

B. redundant fissures

C. haemorrhoids

D. prolapsed rectum

 

14. Which of the following conditions can lead to bleeding disorders?

 A. Crohn’s disease

B. congestive heart failure

C. pregnancy

D. liver disease

 

15. In diabetes mellitus, the priority of the nurse is to correct …………………..

 A. fluid balance

 B. knowledge deficit

 C. altered nutrition

 D. ineffective family coping

16. Angina pain that is unstable and occurs at rest and often at the same time is ……………

 A. stable angina

 B. variant angina

 C. unstable angina

 D. prinzmetal angina

17. Which of the following will not be prescribed for a patient diagnosed of Maniere’s disease?

 A. increase fluid intake

 B. low sodium diet

 C. vasodilating medication

 D. mild sedative

18. In acute phase of Diabetic Ketoacidosis the priority nursing action is to ……………..

 A. administer intravenous Regular insulin

 B. administer intravenous 5% Dextrose

 C. correct alkalosis

 D. apply an ECG monitor

19. Taking a history of a client with right ventricular heart failure the nurse would expect the client to

 complain of:

 A. Dyspnoea, oedema, fatigue

 B. Fatigue, vertigo, headache

 C. Weakness, palpitations, nausea

 D. A feeling of distress

20. The pleural space, lungs and heart are filled with air under pressure in:

 A. spontaneous pneumothorax

 B. tension pneumothorax

 C. open pneumothorax

 D. idiopathic pneumothorax.

21. The nurse is transfusing red blood cells to a client who begins to develop shortness of breath, rales respiration and hypertension. The nurse should document that the client is experiencing the signs of:

A. a transfusion reaction

B. anaphylactic shock

C. fluid overload

D. sepsis.

 

22. The client is receiving chemotherapy for leukemia and is in protective isolation. His wife comes to visit. She asks the nurse if she has to put on a mask before visiting him. The nurse should recommend that the woman:

A. put the mask on before entering the room

B. speaks to her husband from the doorway but not enter the room even with a mask.

C. Does not put on the mask if she is not comfortable.

D. Put on a mask and change it frequently while in the room.

 

23. Collection of pus in the pleural cavity is known as:

A. pneumothorax

B. emphysema

C. empyema

D. pulmonary embolism

 

24. The mother of a four-year old child with leukemia was admitted to the warD. Which of the following responses would indicate to the nurse that the client’s mother understands the prognosis?

A. “She’s lost so much weight”

B. “I want to transfer her to another hospital”

C. “When does the next course of chemotherapy begin?”

D. “Will hospice help us care for her?”

25. A low-protein diet has been prescribed for a client. Which of these foods, if selected by the client, indicates to the nurse his/her understanding of the diet?

A. Eggs, toasts and hot chocolate

B. Refined beans, corn and cola

C. Apple sauce, potato and orange juice

D. Few slices of baked chicken, chicken chick pens and milk.

 

26. Fresh frozen plasma is normally transfused to patients with:

A. Haemophilia

B. Sickle cell crisis.

C. G6PD

D. Leukopenia

 

27. The nurse is assessing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following symptoms can the nurse expect to find?

A. coldness in the calf

B. decreased body temperature

C. extremity heaviness

D. Anorexia

28. The common causes of hypoglycemia in diabetes mellitus are present if the patient..............

A. takes in more food than necessary

B. does not tolerate the prescribed drugs

C. takes overdose of antidiabetic drugs

D. takes more fruit drinks.

29. In bronchiectasis, the destruction of the lung tissue often occurs at the.........................

A. bifurcation of the bronchi

B. lower dependent segment

C. hilum of the lungs

D. visceral pleural covering of the lungs

30. A male client is receiving antihypertensive drugs. Which of these potential side effects would be most important for the nurse to discuss with him?

A. nasal stiffness

B. impotence

C. nausea and vomiting

D. postural hypotension

31. A Client admitted with pulmonary oedema was put on digoxin 0.25mg daily, Furosemide 40mg daily and nasal oxygen therapy at 2 liters/minute. To evaluate the effectiveness of digoxin, the nurse should observe for..............................................

A. increased urine output

B. increased pulse rate

C. lowered blood pressure

D. decreased respiratory rate

32. A client is told that a tuberculin test is positive. Which statement would indicate that the client understands the test results?

A. “I have had previous exposure to tuberculosis”

A. “I have immunity and cannot develop the disease”

B. “I currently have active tuberculosis”

C. “I have a reactivation of a healed primary lesion”

33. A nurse planning to care for a client with human immuno-deficiency virus (HIV) should understand that the most important principle to decrease the risk of spreading the infection is .....................................

A. to know the HIV status of every client in the unit

B. ensure enough distance away from the patient when providing care

C. to know how and when to use personal protective equipment supplied

D. to determine whether the client has been placed in protective isolation

34. A patient with CHF is given Lasix (frusemide), the nurse must monitor which of the following laboratory values to identify any side effects?

A. glucose

B. sodium

C. potassium

D. magnesium

35. Cells susceptible to HIV include one of the following:.............

A. giant cells + CD4

B. microphages only

C. T lymphocytes + CD4

D. buccal epithelium and astrocytes alone

36. On the 3rd day after laparotomy a patient complains of severe pains in the right calf muscle. The nurse should first

A. Apply hot fermentation to the part

B. Elevate the leg above the heart

C. Notify the surgeon

D. Record the symptom son the nurse’s notes

37. Gilbert, 12 years old boy had incision and drainage for injection abscess of the gluteal muscle. Which position would be appropriate after surgery?

A. Dorsal

B. Prone

C. Recumbent

D. Lateral

 

38. A patient with furunculosis is warned not to pierce any lesion. Doing so could

A. Cause bleeding

B. Promote drainage

C. Prevent healing

D. Spread the infection

39. Which of the following would you tell your patient with varicose veins to do to promote comfort and minimize worsening condition? Tell patient to

A. Avoid wearing constrictive clothing

B. Avoid elevating her legs above heart level

C. Avoid putting on compression stockings before coming out of bed

D. Wear constrictive clothing

40. Which of these nursing diagnostic statement will be most appropriate for a 16 your old girl with inflammation of to the breast?

A. Impaired skin integrity related to cracks

B. Ineffective breastfeeding related to inflammation of breast tissue

C. Nausea related inflammation of breast tissue

D. Pain related to inflammation of breast tissue