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100 Solved Medical Nursing MCQ Trial Questions [2]

1. For a patient with pulmonary edema, the nurse must reduce cardiac overload by:

A. Elevating the legs when in bed.

B. Putting the patient in supine position

C. Serving a seasoned beef to him

D. Using bedside commode for stools


2. A client is experiencing respiratory distress but unchanged blood pressure. The immediate nursing action is:

A. suction of the patient vigorously

B. put the patient in high-Fowler’s position

C. give all the prescribed medications

D. call the respiratory therapy department for an assistance


3. Interstitial and intravascular fluids compartments are separated by:

A. Protein pumps

B. capillary wall

C. ionic gates

D. fatty substances


4. Which of the following is an initial sign of hyperkalaemia?

A. pancytopenia anaemia

B. haemorrhagic anaemia

C. Addison’s pernicious anemia

D. Aplastic anaemia


5. Extra-cellular fluids are found in the following compartments except:

A. blood vessels

B. interstitial space

C. spinal cord

D. cytoplasm


6. Which of the following occurs in cardiogenic shock?

A. flushed, dry skin with bounding pedal pulses

B. warm, moist skin with irregular pedal pulses

C. cool, dry skin with alternating weak and strong pedal pulses

D. cool, clammy skin with weak or thready pedal pulses


7. A client complains of intermittent episodes in which the fingers of both hands become pale, cold and numB. They become reddened and swollen with throbbing pain. The client is suffering from:

A. Hodgkin’s disease

B. Parkinson’s disease

C. Raynauld’s disease

D. Steven-Johnson’s syndrome


8. Vitamins are needed -----------. to sustain growth and health

A. periodically in smaller quantities

B. daily in smaller quantities

C. annually in greater quantities

D. periodically in greater quantities


9. Which of the following often causes haemorrhagic anaemia?

A. physical injury to either external or internal structures with severe blood loss

B. decreased absorption of nutrients in the gastro-interstinal tract

C. endocrine changes in the body

D. lack of micro-nutrients in the diet


10. In pericarditis, which of the following clinical features differentiates it from other cardiopulmonary disease?

A. chest pain that worsens on inspiration

B. pericardial friction rub

C. anterior chest pain

D. weakness and irritability


11. Which of the following foods can worsen the pain of a client suffersing from Raynaud’s disease?

A. ingestion of coffee or chocolate

B. ingestion of an offal

C. ingestion of cereals and pulses

D. ingestion of fruits and vegetables


12. Potassium excess can result in:

A. tongue fissure

B. muscle cramps

C. sunken eyes

D. increased sweating


13. In haemorrhagic anaemia, injection…………is given to client to allay anxiety.

A. pethidine

B. coumadin

C. heparin

D. morphine


14. The by products of all foods oxidized in the body are;

A. amino acids, oxygen and glycerol

B. fatty acids, glycerol and carbon dioxide

C. glucose, amino acids and water

D. carbon dioxide, energy and water


15. The priority nursing diagnosis of the acute phase of myocardial infarction is:

A. alteration in comfort (pain)

B. anxiety

C. ineffective coping

D. impaired tissue integrity


16. An agent of a disease is referred to:

A. the affected person

B. the causative organism

C. the method of spread of the disease

D. the environmental condition


17. The major function of sodium in the body is to:

A. promote wound healing

B. to form ATP

C. balance body fluid

D. process extracellular fluid


18. In preparation of home-made oral rehydration salt, the following are needed except:

A. 8 heaped teaspoonfuls of sugar

B. 1 level teaspoonful of salt

C. 1000mls of wholesome water

D. a clean container and its cover


19. The predominant cation in the intracellular compartment is:

A. chloride

B. calcium

C. magnesium

D. potassium


20. A positively charged ion in the body is called:

A. cation

B. anion

C. buffer

D. hydrolysis


21. A negatively charged ion in the body is called:

A. hydrolysis

B. buffer

C. anion

D. cation


22. Which of the following vitamins cannot be found from a plant source?

A. vitamin A

B. vitamin B12

C. vitamin E

D. vitamin B1


23. A client suffering from coronary artery disease should be encouraged to take:

A. rice and grilled chicken

B. fruits, vegetables and baked fish

C. grilled pork, fatty mutton with buttered rice

D. eggs, buttered rice with fried chicken


24. A client with angina pectoris complains of chest pain while getting out of beD.

 The nurse must first:

A. get an order for pain medication

B. report the complaint to the physician

C. advise the client to continue to get out of bed

D. stop the client and encourage him to lie down in bed


25. A client was brought to an emergency department with angina pectoris, the priority of the nursing

 care is to:

A. assemble oxygen apparatus at the bedside

B. put in place a bed table

C. make ECG machine ready

D. put the client on a low bed


26. Which of the following common signs or symptoms indicate that the patient is suffering from

 myocardial infarction?

A. the client experiencing nausea and vomiting

B. the client complains of pain while walking

C. client’s pain is not relieved by rest and nitroglycerin

D. client’s pain is described as sub-sternal and radiates to the left arm


27. Dermatitis, diarrhea, and dermatitis are characteristic of......................................

A. pellagra

B. rickets

C. osteomyelitis

D. mumps


28. Guinea worm disease is described as.............................................

A. air borne only

B. vector borne

C. food borne

D. air and vector borne


29. Laboratory criteria for diagnosis of rabies is.........................................

A. leukocyte antigen

B. immunofluorescent assay

C. direct fluorescent antibody test

D. immunofluorescence skin test


30. Which of the following does not exacerbate the condition of a patient suffering from heart failure?

A. recent upper respiratory infection

B. nutritional anaemia

C. peptic ulcer disease

D. atrial fibrillation


31. A nurse reviews the physician’s prescription for a client with heart failure. The nurse expects to

 note which of the following?

A. Cardizem

B. Digoxin

C. Propranolol

D. Metronidazole


32. A client diagnosed of thrombophlebitis 24 hours ago suddenly complains of chest pain, shortness

 of breath and visible anxiousness. The nurse must check the client for other signs and symptoms

 of ……………..

A. myocardial infarction

B. pneumonia

C. pulmonary embolism

D. pulmonary oedema


33. A client is seeking treatment for varicosity, and sclerotherapy is recommendeD. What is 


A. surgical removal of the varicosity

B. tying off veins

C. oral intake of anticoagulant

D. injecting an agent into a vein to damage the vein wall and close the vein off


34. A client complaining of claudication in the arch of the left foot is likely to suffer from ---------------

A. Raynaud’s disease

B. Buerger’s disease

C. Parkinson’s disease

D. Paget’s disease


35. In mumps, there is self-limited swelling of the --------------------------

A. adrenalins

B. pyloric sphincter

C. parotid gland

D. thymus gland


36. The nurse is preparing to instill an otic solution in an adult client’s ear. The nurse should avoid

 which of the following in the procedure?

A. pulling the auricle backward and upward

B. touching the tip of the dropper to the edge of the canal

C. warming the solution to room temperature

D. placing the client in the sitting-up position


37. In acute urethritis, the commonest symptom is....................................

 A. pelvic pain

B. urethral discharge

C. increased temperature

D. dysuria


38. In nursing, which of the following treatments will be of priority in the treatment of otitis media?

A. bed rest

B. mastoidectomy

C. dyphenhydramine

D. myringotomy


39. In the nursing care of a client with Meniere’s disease the nurse must teach the client -----

A. about current drugs

B. to avoid tobacco

C. about safety measures

D. about self-care measures


40. Which of the following findings does the nurse expect to note if a client is suffering from


A. swelling behind the ear

B. a clear tympanic membrane

C. a mobile tympanic membrane

D. a transparent tympanic membrane


41. Physiological mechanisms of adaptation work together through complex relationships in the.............

A. respiratory and nervous systems

B. nervous and endocrine systems

C. digestive and nervous systems

D. digestive and endocrine systems


42. Which of the following otoscopic findings indicates perforated eardrum?

A. a colony of black dots in the ear drum

B. dense white patches on the ear drum

C. a red, bulging eardrum

D. a round darkened area on the eardrum


43. A client diagnosed of Maniere’s disease should avoid --------------------

A. cereal products

B. salty foods

C. citrus foods

D. green vegetables


44. To facilitate communication with an 80 year old client diagnosed of presbycusis, the nurse should

A. lower the voice pitch and face the client when speaking

B. use sign language

C. speak loudly

D. put the mouth closely to one ear when speaking


45. There are two types of particles involved in airborne transmission of diseases. They are dust and --.

A. water

B. saliva

C. air

D. droplet nuclei


46. A nurse who is caring for a client that has a hearing impaired will adopt which of the following


A. speak frequently

B. speak loudly

C. speak directly into the unaffected ear

D. speak in a normal tone


47. A client arrives at the emergency unit with as foreign body in the left ear that has been found to be

 an insect?

A. irrigate the ear

B. instill diluted alcohol

C. instill antibiotic ear drop

D. instill corticorsteroid ointment


48. A nurse understands that presbycusis is accurately described as ------------------

A. A sensori-neural loss that occurs with aging

B. a conductive hearing loss that occurs with aging

C. Tinnitus that occurs with aging

D. Nystagmus that occurs with aging


49. The best drug to prescribe for a client with Maniere’s disease is ------------------

A. Low cholesterol diet

B. Low sodium diet

C. Low carbohydrate diet

D. Low fat diet


50. Cranial nerve I is also called -----------------------------------------

A. Olfactory nerve

B. Oculomotor nerve

C. Trochlear nerve

D. Facial nerve


51. Maniere’s disease is a disorder of the -------------------------------------------

A. external ear

B. tympanic membrane

C. middle ear

D. inner ear


52. A patient with otoslerosis will show which of the following as an early symptom?

A. ringing in the ears

B. blurred vision

C. headache

D. vertigo


53. A nurse should advise a client with Maniere’s disease and experiencing severe vertigo to --….

A. increase fluid intake to 3L a day

B. avoid sudden head movements

C. lie still in bed and watch television

D. decrease sodium intake


54. Oculomotor nerve is also called -------------------------------

A. cranial nerve I

B. cranial nerve IV

C. cranial nerve III

D. cranial nerve VII


55. A client diagnosed with a disorder involving the inner ear usually complains of ---------------------

A. hearing loss

B. pruitus

C. tinnitus

D. burning in the ear


56. An open-angle glaucoma occurs when ----------------------------------------

A. the pressure increases within the eye from excess fluid or blocking the drainage

B. the lens of the eye becomes opaque

C. the blood vessels in the back of the eye ruptures

D. there is a reduction in the amount of aqueous humour produced


57. A client with refractive error in both eyes should be advised to ----------------------

A. use eye drops

B. use rigid contact lenses

C. use corrective lenses

D. undergo keratoplasty


58. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of retinal detachment. Which of the following will the nurse

 include in the plan of care?

A. out of bed to ambulate with assistance

B. place an eye patch over the affected eye

C. maintain high-Fowler’s position

D. restrict visitors


59. In preparing a client for accommodation test, initially the nurse asks the client to --------------------

A. focus on a distant object

B. close one eye and read letters on a chart

C. raise one finger when the sound is heard

D. focus on a close object


60. A boy, 14 is admitted to the hospital with acute myelogenous leukemia and presented bruises and

 petechiae over his legs. Which of the following nursing measure would best prevent additional


A. brushing the teeth only once per day

B. trimming his nails short

C. handling him well with the palms of the hand

D. gripping him in an arm chair


61. It is important for the nurse to prevent infection in sickle cell patient because --------

A. infection kills instantly

B. infection can cause sickling

C. infection causes clubbing of the fingers

D. infection causes further blood loss


62. Haemophilia, a coagulation disorder results from deficiency of ----------------------

A. factor IV only

B. factor IV and factor VIII

C. factor VIII and IX

D. factor VIII and factor IV


63. Immature red blood cells are called ------------------------------------------------------

A. megakaryocytes

B. haemoglobins

C. reticulocytes

D. monocytes


64. The red blood cells that have a relatively low haemoglobin F also have -------------

A. more haemoglobin S

B. less haemoglobin S

C. greater life span

D. lesser life span


65. A client’s vision is tested with Snellen chart. The result of the least is documented as 20/60. The

 nurse interprets this as

A. The Client can read at a distance of 60 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 20 feet.

B. The client is legally blind

C. The client ;s vision is normal

D. The client can read at a distance of 20 feet what a client with normal vision can read at 60 feet.


66. A nurse is assigned to administer the prescribed eye drops for a client preparing for cataract

 Surgery. Which of the following types of eye drops will the nurse expect to be prescribed?

A. An osmotic diuretic

-+ B. A miotic agent

C. A mydriatic medication

D. A thisazide diuretic



67. A myotic agent would always

A. Improve the sight

B. Induce diereses

C. Constrict the pupil

D. Dilate the pupil 


68. A mydriatic agent would always

A. Assist the sight of the client

B. Assist to overcome

C. Constrict the pupil

D. Dilate the pupil


69. A client is diagnosed with glaucomA. Which of these indicate a risk factor associated with glaucoma?

A. A history of migraine headaches

B. Frequent urinary tract infection 

C. A cardio vascular disease

D. Frequent upper respiratory infection


70. To minimize the systemic effects that eye drops can produce, the nurse plans to instruct the client to:

A. Eat before instilling the drops

B. Swallow several times after instilling the drops.

C. Blink vigorously to encourage tearing after instilling drops.

D. occlude the nasolacriminal duct with the finger for several minutes after instilling the drops


71. Which of the following data collected by the nurse is least associated with

Peptic ulcer

A. History of tarry black stools

B. History of alcohol abuse

c History of gastric pain 2 to 4 hours after meals

d History of the use of acetaminophen


72. During administration of nasogastric feeding, the nurse places the patient in which position?

A. Striping

B. Fowler’s

C. Sim’s

D. Tredelenburg


73. After feeding a patient through a nasogastric tube, the nurse places the patient in which position?

A. Supine

B. Fowler’s

C. Sim’s

D. Tredelenburg

74. A nurse is collecting data on a hepatitis patient, which of the following suggest a severe damage to the liver?

A. Dark stools, yellow sclera, and dark urine 

B. Clay stools, yellow sclera, and blood tinged urine

C. Clay stools, pruritus and dark urine

D. Dark stools, pruritus, and amber urine


75. A nurse planning care for a client with hepatitis, plans to meet the client’s safety needs by:

A. monitoring prothrombin and partial thromboplastin values

B. bathing with tepid water

C. assisting with meals

D. weighing and recording a weight daily


76. Which of the following finding is commonly found with a client with hepatitis?

A. Blurred vision or diplopic

B. Urinary frequency or urgency

C. Confusion or drowsiness

D. Diarrhoea or constipation 


77. A nurse should include which of the following non pharmacological treatment plan for a client who has peptic ulcer.

A. Continue to eat the same diet as before diagnosis

B. Smoke only at bedtime

C. Learn to use stress reduction techniques

D. Take non- steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for pain relief.


78. In providing instructions to a client with peptic ulcer disease, the nurse tells the client to

A. Eat foods that will increase gastrointestinal motility.

B. Eat at least six small meals per day

C. Eat everything that does not aggravate or cause pain.

D. Consume a bland diet only


79. Which of the following drugs will be prescribed for a patient with too little intrinsic factor? 

A. Vitamin B12 injections

B. Vitamin B3 injections

C. Vitamin B6 injections

 D. Antacid use


80. A client is diagnosed with chronic ulcerative colitis and is anaemiC. What caused the anaemia? 

A. Decreased intake of dietary iron

B. Blood loss

C. Intestinal malabsorption

D. Lack of appetite.


81. Which of the following is likely to cause pernicious anaemia?

A. Decreased dietary intake of iron

B. Hemi-gastrectomy

C. Excessive consumption of iron

D. Reduced level of thyroxine


82. Pernicious anaemia is associated with

A. Decreased absorption of vitamin B12

B. Decreased consumption of iron

C. Excessive consumption of iron

D. Excessive loss of gastric juices


83. A client will undergo a barium swallow to determine whether a hiatal hernia is present. The nurse instructs the client to:

A. Avoid eating or drinking after midnight before the test.

B. Have a clear liquid breakfast only on the morning of the test

C. Take all routine medications on the morning of the test.

D. Limit self to two cigarettes only in the nursing of test.


84. A client with an ileostomy is at risk of developing ………………..

A. Respiratory acidosis

B. Respirations

C. Metabolic acidosis

D. Metabolic alkalosis


85. A client with tuberculosis who is co-infected with HIV requires that anti-tubercular therapy lasts for ……….

A. 6 total months and at least I month after culture converts to negative

b 6 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative

C. 9 total month and at least 3 months after culture converts to negative

D. 9 total months and at least 6months after culture converts to negative.


86. A Mantoux test that results positive has indurations greater than …….

A. 10mm

B. 5mm

C. 3mm

D. 7mm


87. A client with HIV has positive results on Mantoux’s skin test with an area of induration of about


A. 7mm

B. 5mm

C. 10mm

D. 3mm


88. A client with AIDS who is taking zidovudine (Retrovir) 2000mg PO may present with which of the

 following as severe effects.

A. Bacteraemia

B. Polycythemia

C. Neutropenia

D. Natraemia


89. A common reaction from taking zovirax (acyclovir) is

A. Elevation in WBCs

B. Elevation in blood urea and nitrogen

C. Elevation in platelet count

D. Elevation in hemoglobin 


90. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with rheumatoid arthritis reveals which of the following


A. cloudy synovial fluid

B. presence of organisms

C. bloody synovial fluid

D. presence of urate crystals 


91. An aspirate of synovial fluid from a patient with gout reveals which of these findings?

A. cloudy synovial fluid

B. presence of organisms

C. bloody synovial fluid

 D. presence of urate crystals


92. Which of the following findings is suggestive of systemic lupus erythematosus

A. Two haeinoglobin s genes

B. Ascites

C. Emboli

D. Butterfly rash on cheeks and bridges of nose


93. Which of the following findings is indicative of sickle cell disease?

A. Raised level of genes

B. A single abnormal beta haemoglobin

C. Two haemoglobin s genes

D. A single haemoglobin s genes


94. After 2 ELISA tests are positive, which of the following test will be done to confirm an HIV positive


A. A CD4 cell count

B. A Western blot

C. A bone marrow biopsy

D. A third ELISA test


95. Which of the following is an early sign of pneumocytis carinii infection

A. cough

B. dyspnoea on exertion

C. dyspnoea at rest

D. fever


96. A client exposed to HIV infection approximately 3 months ago will present

A. oral lesions

B. purplish skin lesions

C. chronic cough

D. no signs and symptoms


97. Which of the following is a sign of Kaposi’s sarcoma?

A. A raised, dark purplish–coloured lesions on the thrunk

B. erythromatous nodosa

C. dyspnoea on slight exertion

D. numerous boils on the body


98. In making dietary changes for a client experiencing nausea and vomiting, the nurse must ….

A. A void diary products and red meat

B. Plan large, nutritious meals

C. Add spices to food for added flavour

D. Serve foods while they are very warm.


99. In herpes zooster, the common feature is …..

A. The presence of red, raised papules and large plagues covered by silvery scales

B. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis

C. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by virus.

D. Presence of tiny red resides.


100. A client diagnosed with psoriasis presents…………………………

A. The presence of tiny red vesicles

B. The presence of red, raised papules and large plaques covered by silvery scales.

C. An autoimmune disorder that causes blistering in the epidermis.

D. The presence of skin vesicles found along the nerve caused by the virus

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